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Joseph Meyer's avatar

Thank you for another educational and thought-provoking article. Dr. Gusev notes, “for schizophrenia, which was thought to be largely genetic, the most we can expect from a common variant polygenic score is an accuracy (R-squared) of ~0.24, with the current score reaching about a third of that (Trubetskoy et al. 2022).” But if the phenotype we call schizophrenia is really a wide spectrum of disorders with similar symptoms, might the R-squared be higher if we identify the different conditions that we today broadly call schizophrenia and look at them separately?

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BrookeSP's avatar

Because this is a predictive definition, it can include the contribution of non-causal genetic variables, for example, genetic variation that influenced traits in prior generations and was then passed down culturally through families (I’ll refer to this as “cultural transmission”). For some traits, the proportion of “heritability” that is actually operating through environment or cultural transmission rather than genes can be substantial, complicating the interpretation.

Does this imply a biological/genetic "start" that over time, transforms into a non material or less biological cause for a particular behavioral trait of interest? Hopefully that question makes sense. What would be an example of this?

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